Showing posts with label high-court. Show all posts
Showing posts with label high-court. Show all posts

27 May 2026

Vinay Bhadauria Vs Insolvency And Bankruptcy Board Of India - In view of the aforesaid statutory provisions, this Court finds that the jurisdiction to try offences under the IBC is specifically conferred upon the Special Court linked to the place where the registered office of the company is situated. The said provision overrides the general provisions of the Cr.P.C. relating to territorial jurisdiction.

  HC Gwalior (2026.04.26)  in Vinay Bhadauria Vs Insolvency And Bankruptcy Board Of India [2026:MPHC-GWL:11827, MISC. CRIMINAL CASE No. 32697 of 2022] held that;-

  • In view of the aforesaid statutory provisions, this Court finds that the jurisdiction to try offences under the IBC is specifically conferred upon the Special Court linked to the place where the registered office of the company is situated. The said provision overrides the general provisions of the Cr.P.C. relating to territorial jurisdiction.


Excerpts of the Order;

The present petition has been filed under Section 482 of the Cr.P.c. for quashing of the complaint dated 05.01.2021 under Section 236 for the offence under Sections 19, 68, 69, 70, 74(1) and 235A of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 reach with Sections 190, 193 and 200 of the Cr.P.C. registered with case No.SC/38/2021 before the Court of IX Additional District and Sessions Judge, Gwalior.


# 2. Learned counsel for the complainant submitted that a complaint was filed by the complainant/respondent against the accused/petitioners under Section 236 for offences under Sections 19, 68, 69, 70, 74(1) and 235A of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 read with sections 190, 193, and 200 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 which was registered as case no.SC/38/2021 before learned Court of IX Additional District and Session Judge, Gwalior. The complaint is sub-judice before the Court of IX Additional District and Session Judge, Gwalior. Subsequent to the filing of complaint by the complainant/respondent, summons vide dated 27.09.2021 were issued against both the accused/petitioners. But, proper procedure as prescribed as per the provisions of Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 was not followed while issuing summons to the accused/petitioners. It is clear from the bare perusal of Section 204(3) of the Code of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 that every summons or warrant issued under Sub-section (1) of the said section shall be accompanied by a copy of the complaint. However, the complainant/respondent has not been served a copy of the complaint along with the Summons to the accused/petitioners.


# 3. It is further argued that the Trial Court vide order dated 05.01.2021 (Annexure P-3) has taken cognizance of the complaint in a wholly mechanical manner, without application of judicial mind and without passing a reasoned or speaking order, thereby vitiating the entire proceedings at the threshold. He relied on the judgement passed by the Hon'ble Apex Court in the case of Pradeep S. Wodeyar Vs. State of Karnataka 2021 SCC OnLine SC 1140 . The Petitioners had specifically raised a preliminary objection regarding lack of territorial jurisdiction before the Trial Court. However, the said objection was outrightly rejected vide impugned order dated 04.05.2022 (Annexure P-1) without proper appreciation of statutory provisions and settled law, rendering the order arbitrary and unsustainable.


# 4. Learned counsel for petitioner submitted that the complaint was filed under section 236 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (hereinafter referred as IBC). Sections 236(1) and 236(2) of the IBC expressly provide as under:

  • "(1) Notwithstanding anything in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (2 of 1974), offences under of this Code shall be tried by the Special Court established under Chapter XXVIII of the Companies Act, 2013 (18 of 2013)"

  • "(2) No Court shall take cognizance of any offence punishable under this Act, save on a complaint made by the Board or the Central Government or any persons authorised by the Central Government in this behalf."


# 5. Section 436(1)(a) of Chapter XXVIII of the Companies Act, 2013 reads as under:

  • "436. Offences triable by Special Courts 

  • (1) Notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure. 1973 (2 of 1974),-

  • (a) all offences specified under sub-section (1) of section 435 shall be triable only by the Special Court established for the area in which the registered office of the company in relation to which the offence is committed or where there are more Special Courts than one for such area, by such one of them as may be specified in this behalf by the High Court concerned;"


# 6. From the bare reading of section 436 it is clear that offences shall be triable only by the Special Court established under section 435 having territorial jurisdiction where the registered office of the company is situated.


It relevant to refer the Annexure D-1, wherein it is clear that as per notification dated 18.05.2016 wherein at S. No. 6 of the list, L.d. IX Additional District & Sessions Judge, Gwalior is having jurisdiction only with respect to State of Madhya Pradesh. While the registered office of the company against which the complaint is relates is admittedly situated at New Delhi. Therefore, Trial Court lacked inherent jurisdiction to take cognizance of the complaint.


# 7. The complainant/respondent himself admitted that the registered office of the company is situated at New Delhi. Then, it is relevant here to have perusal of the Section 60 (1) of the IBC, 2016 2013, and the same is reproduced herein for ready reference-

  • 60. Adjudicating Authority for corporate persons .-

  • (1) The Adjudicating Authority, in relation to insolvency resolution and liquidation for corporate persons including corporate debtors and personal guarantors thereof shall be the National Company Law Tribunal having territorial jurisdiction over the place where the registered office of the corporate person is located."


# 8. It is also admitted by the complainant/respondent that the allegations arise out of alleged non-compliance of directions issued by the NCLT Principle Bench. As per the notification dated 01.06.2016, the NCLT Principle Bench is situated at New Delhi and exercises its jurisdiction over the Union Territory of Delhi, State of Haryana and State of Rajasthan.


# 9. Vide notification dated 27.07.2016 issued by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, the Court of Additional Sessions Judge-03. South-West District, Dwarka, New Delhi has been designated as the Special Court under Section 435 of the Companies Act for the NCT of Delhi. Therefore the entire cause of action has arisen within the territorial jurisdiction of New Delhi. And, only the said Special Court at New Delhi has the jurisdiction to try the alleged offences under the IBC and LD. Special Court at Gwalior has no territorial jurisdiction to take cognizance of the complaint.


# 10. The assumption of jurisdiction by the Ld. Trial Court is ex facie illegal. being contrary to the mandatory statutory scheme. The entire proceedings, including the order taking cognizance and subsequent orders, are thus without jurisdiction and liable to be quashed. Hence, this petition be  allowed and the order of the court below be set aside.


# 11. On the contrary, learned counsel for respondent/Board/complainant submitted that all the alleged offences were committed sitting at the place which falls within the jurisdiction of Special Court Gwalior. The suspended directors, being residents of Gwalior, have failed to extend cooperation and have committed acts of non-compliance and other related contraventions within the jurisdiction of Gwalior. The said acts constitute continuing defaults, as the non-cooperation persists over time. In this regard, as per Section 177 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, every offence shall ordinarily be inquired into and tried by a court within whose local jurisdiction it was committed. He further argued that, Section 178 of the Code provides that in cases of continuing offences or where acts occur across multiple jurisdictions, the matter may be inquired into or tried by a court having jurisdiction over any such local area. He also submitted that under Section 179 of the Code, where an act constitutes an offence by reason of its consequences, the jurisdiction also lies where such consequences ensue. Therefore, in light of the residence of the suspended directors and the continuing nature and consequences of the contraventions, the courts at Gwalior have the appropriate jurisdiction to inquire into and try the present matter. The petitioners had not raised any issue regarding the jurisdiction before the lower court and in the present petition also not a single issue regarding the jurisdiction of Madhya Pradesh has been raised. Hence, this petition deserves to be dismissed.


# 12. Heard learned counsel for the parties and perused the record.


# 13. It is not in dispute that the registered office of the company in question is situated at New Delhi. It is also an admitted position that the allegations in the complaint arise out of alleged non-compliance of directions issued by the NCLT, Principal Bench, New Delhi.


# 14. As per the statutory scheme, particularly Section 60(1) of the IBC, the Adjudicating Authority in relation to insolvency resolution of corporate persons is the National Company Law Tribunal having territorial jurisdiction over the place where the registered office of the corporate person is located. Further, as per the notification issued by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, the Special Court designated for the National Capital Territory of Delhi is the Court of Additional Sessions Judge, South-West District, Dwarka, New Delhi.


# 15. In view of the aforesaid statutory provisions, this Court finds that the jurisdiction to try offences under the IBC is specifically conferred upon the Special Court linked to the place where the registered office of the company is situated. The said provision overrides the general provisions of the Cr.P.C. relating to territorial jurisdiction.


# 16. The contention of the respondent that the cause of action has arisen at Gwalior on account of residence of the directors or alleged continuing defaults cannot be accepted in the present case, in light of the special statutory scheme governing trial of offences under the IBC, which clearly mandates jurisdiction based on the location of the registered office. Therefore, the assumption of jurisdiction by the Court of IX Additional District & Sessions Judge, Gwalior is found to be contrary to the statutory mandate and cannot be sustained.


# 17. Consequently, the present petition is disposed of with a direction to the respondent/complainant/Board to file the complaint before the competent Special Court having jurisdiction at New Delhi/competent court having jurisdiction, in accordance with law. It is made clear that this Court has not expressed any opinion on the merits of the case and all issues are left open to be adjudicated by the competent court.


# 18. The concerned Special Court is directed to return the original copy of the complaint filed by the Board/complainant and relevant certified copies by replenishing it with photocopy of the same and respondent/complainant is directed to file the same before the competent court/special court having jurisdiction.


# 19. If the petitioner files such complaint before the competent/concerned court within a period of three months from the date of passing of this order, then the aforesaid Special/competent court is expected to ignore the point of limitation, if any.


# 20. With the aforesaid, this petition stands disposed of.

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12 Nov 2024

Sanjay Kumar Agarwal Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation - Considering the fact that the appointment of Resolution Professional is made during the resolution process before the Company Law Tribunal with its approval, he will be a public servant under Section 2(c)(v) of the P.C. Act.

  HC Jharkhand (05.04.2023) In Sanjay Kumar Agarwal Vs. Central Bureau of Investigation, Anti Corruption Bureau, Dhanbad [Cr. M.P. No. 1048 of 2021] held that;

  • Considering the fact that the appointment of Resolution Professional is made during the resolution process before the Company Law Tribunal with its approval, he will be a public servant under Section 2(c)(v) of the P.C. Act.

  • Functions and obligations of Insolvency Professionals are as set out under Section 208 of I & B Code which are public in nature. These functions intimately relate to matters relating to loans extended by the Banks which is investments from public at large and therefore will come within the meaning of public duty as provided under Section 2-c(viii) of the P.C. Act.

  • Section 232 does not exclude operation of P.C. Act. Therefore, the plea the petitioner was not a public servant and was immune from criminal prosecution under PC Act is not tenable.


Excerpts of the order

# 1. Instant petition has been filed for quashing of entire criminal proceeding instituted against the petitioner including the F.I.R. being R.C.1(A)/2020-D, CBI, ACB, Dhanbad for the offence under Section 7 of Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (hereinafter called ‘PC Act’).


# 2. The petitioner is an ‘Insolvency Professional’ as defined under Section 3(19) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (hereinafter called ‘the I&B Code’) enrolled under Section 207 of the I&B Code. 


# 3. Corporate debtors are M/s Adi Ispat Private limited and M/s Bir Ispat Pvt. Ltd., Giridih.


# 4. Financial Creditors are State Bank of India for Rs 1,35,39,27,277 and Operation Creditor is Damodar Valley Corporation for Rs 6,28,31,085/-


# 5. NCLT vide its order dated 22.11.2019 and 06.01.2020 appointed this petitioner, as interim Resolution Professional (IRP) for both companies in terms of Section 7(3)(b) r/w Section 16 of I&B Code.


# 6. The petitioner was appointed as Resolution Professional by the Committee of Creditors.


# 7. The complainant is Amit Sarawgi, Director of M/s Adi Ispat (P) Limited and it is alleged that petitioner had demanded a bribe of Rs.2,00,000/- per month for showing leniency in the insolvency resolution process for extending CIRP process from 09 months to 02 years and also demanded Rs.20,00,000/- for obtaining favourable forensic audit/valuation report from his chosen Forensic Auditor/Valuer and for helping in re-possession of plant/company. The petitioner had offered him that SME, the complainant was entitled to participate in the auction proceeding of the Bank and if he met the demands, he would prepare his report leniently enabling him re-possess his plant/company.


# 8. The complaint was discreetly verified. Trap team was constituted and raid was conducted at Giridih at the Company office, where the petitioner was caught read handed on 11.2.2020 in the presence of independent witnesses accepting the illegal gratification from the complainant.


# 9. Instant petition for quashing of the F.I.R. is premised mainly on the ground that Section 7 of PC Act will not apply to this petitioner as a ‘Resolution Professional’ is not a public servant within the meaning of Section 2(C) of the Prevention of Corruption Act or under Section 21 of the IPC.


# 10. It is argued that he is neither public servant nor he is appointed by any Court or is performing any public duty. The appointment process of resolution professional is provided under Section 22 of the Code, 2016 under which he is appointed by the committee of the creditors. The duty which has been detailed in Section 25 are not in the nature of public duty as contemplated under Section 2(c)(viii).


# 11. Further, I&B Code is a self-contained Code and specific provisions have been provided for redressal of grievance of any party. Under Chapter VI of the Code, Section 217, the complaints against insolvency professional agency or its member or information utility. It is proposed to be made to the Board. There are further provisions regarding the amendment in Finance, Account and Audit which is put down under Chapter VII. Reliance is placed on the following authorities Innoventive Industries Limited Versus ICICI Bank & Another; (2018) 1 SCC 407 wherein it has been held that “It is settled law that a consolidating and amending Act like the present Central enactment forms a code complete in itself and in exhaustive of the matters dealt with therein”. 


Arcelormittal India (P) Ltd. v. Satish Kumar Gupta, (2019) 2 SCC 1 it has been held,

  • 80. However, it must not be forgotten that a Resolution Professional is only to “examine” and “confirm” that each resolution plan conforms to what is provided by Section 30(2). Under Section 25(2)(i), the Resolution Professional shall undertake to present all resolution plans at the meetings of the Committee of Creditors. This is followed by Section 30(3), which states that the Resolution Professional shall present to the Committee of Creditors, for its approval, such resolution plans which confirm the conditions referred to in sub-section (2). This provision has to be read in conjunction with Section 25(2)(i), and with the second proviso to Section 30(4), which provides that where a resolution applicant is found to be ineligible under Section 29-A(c), the resolution applicant shall be allowed by the Committee of Creditors such period, not exceeding 30 days, to make payment of overdue amounts in accordance with the proviso to Section 29-A(c). A conspectus of all these provisions would show that the Resolution Professional is required to examine that the resolution plan submitted by various applicants is complete in all respects, before submitting it to the Committee of Creditors. The Resolution Professional is not required to take any decision, but merely to ensure that the resolution plans submitted are complete in all respects before they are placed before the Committee of Creditors, who may or may not approve it.


# 12. It is further argued that Section 232 of the I&B Code provides that the Chairperson, Members, officers and other employees of the Board shall be deemed, when acting or purporting to act in pursuance of any of the provisions of this Code, to be public servants within the meaning of Section 21 of the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860). The list does not include Insolvency Professionals. Section 233 gives protection to resolution professional, insolvency professional from any criminal prosecution or other legal action for the act done in good faith.


# 13. It is submitted by Mr. P.A.S. Pati, learned counsel on behalf of C.B.I. that the instant matter involves a case where the petitioner was caught red handed by the trap team constituted by the CBI, while accepting Rs. Two Lakh as illegal gratification in connection with discharge of his duty as Resolution Professional from the complainant.


# 14. On the question whether a Resolution Professional is a public servant or not, it is argued that the process of appointment of a Resolution Professional commences from Section 16 of the I&B Code, 2016 wherein it has been submitted that the adjudicating authority shall appoint an interim resolution professional. His appointment is further made under Section 22 by the committee of creditors after its constitution and the information regarding the appointment is to be communicated to the adjudicating authority. Even in case of replacement of Resolution Professional by the committee of creditors under Section 27 (3) and (4), the committee of creditors shall forward the name of the insolvency professional proposed by them to the adjudicating authority which will forward it to the Board for its confirmation. Against this scheme of Code, it is argued that it is not correct to say that the adjudicating authority has no role in the appointment of Resolution Professional. 


# 15. Having been appointed in the resolution process before Company  Law Tribunal the duty that is discharged by him is in connection with administration of justice and therefore his office will come within the meaning of ‘Public Servant’ under Section 2-c(v) of the P.C. Act which is as under

  • “Any person authorized by a Court of justice to perform any duty, in connection with the transmission of justice, including a liquidator, receiver or commissioner appointed by such Court”.


# 16. Reliance is placed on Asian Resurfacing of Road Agency (P) Ltd. v. CBI, (2018) 16 SCC 299 wherein meaning of ‘Public Servant’ has been exposited by the Supreme Court under the provisions of Prevention of Corruption Act.

  • 42. Section 2(c) defines “public servant”. The definition is extremely wide and includes within its ken even arbitrators or other persons to whom any cause or matter has been referred for decision or report by a court of justice or by a competent public authority [See Section 2(c)(vi)]. Also included are office-bearers of registered cooperative societies engaged in agriculture, industry, trade or banking, who receive financial aid from the Government [See Section 2(c)(ix)]. Office-bearers or employees of educational, scientific, social, cultural or other institutions in whatever manner established, receiving financial assistance from the Government or local or other public authorities are also included [see Section 2(c)(xii)]. The two Explanations to Section 2(c) are also revealing — whereas Explanation 1 states that in order to be a public servant, one need not be appointed by the Government, Explanation 2 refers to a de facto, as opposed to a de jure, public servant, discounting whatever legal defect there may be in his right to hold that “situation”.


In State of Gujarat v. Mansukhbhai Kanjibhai Shah, (2020) 20 SCC 360 the nature of duty exercised was regarded as the determinative factor to decide whether the person sought to be proceeded was a public servant or not. If he was held to be exercising public duty, he can be held to be a public servant. The emphasis was not on the mode of appointment or remuneration, but if he was exercising a public duty or not. On this test it was held that the trustee in the Board of “deemed university” came withing the meaning of a “public servant” covered under Section 2(c) of the PC Act. The Court held as under,

  • 34. On a perusal of Section 2(c) of the PC Act, we may observe that the emphasis is not on the position held by an individual, rather, it is on the public duty performed by him/her. In this regard, the legislative intention was not to provide an exhaustive list of authorities which are covered, rather a general definition of “public servant” is provided thereunder. This provides an important internal evidence as to the definition of the term “university”………

  • 44. As discussed earlier, the object of the PC Act was not only to prevent the social evil of bribery and corruption, but also to make the same applicable to individuals who might conventionally not be considered public servants. The purpose under the PC Act was to shift focus from those who are traditionally called public officials, to those individuals who perform public duties. Keeping the same in mind, as rightly submitted by the learned Senior Counsel for the appellant State, it cannot be stated that a “deemed university” and the officials therein, perform any less or any different a public duty, than those performed by a university simpliciter, and the officials therein.


# 17. The central question in the instant petition is whether ‘Resolution Professional’ as defined under Section 22 of the I&B Code will come within the meaning of ‘Public Servant’ under Section 2 (c) of the PC Act?


# 18. This court is of the view that resolution professional will come within the meaning of a public servant under Section 2(c) the PC Act for the reason that definition of public servant as given under the PC Act is very wide and expansive. It is not limited to those serving under the Government or its instrumentalities and drawing salary from the public exchequer. Apart from the list of the functionaries given in Section 2 (c), the definition also lays down the functional criteria to include within its fold those discharging public duty or any duty authorized by a court of justice, in connection with administration of justice. In State v. C.N. Manjunath, (2017) 11 SCC 361 the question involved was whether the licensed surveyors in Taluks came within the meaning of ‘public servant’ under the PC Act. It was held :

  • 8. Once the nature of performance of duties gets crystallised, no doubt remains that these licensed surveyors would come within the ambit of Section 2(c) of the Prevention of Corruption Act and particularly clauses (i) and (viii) thereof, which defines “public servant” to mean:

  • “2. (c)(i) any person in the service or pay of the Government or remunerated by the Government by fees or commission for the performance of any public duty;

  • (viii) any person who holds an office by virtue of which he is authorised or required to perform any public duty;”

  • 9. We would also like to refer to the definition of “public duty” as contained in Section 2(b) of the Prevention of Corruption Act, which reads as under:

  • “2. (b) “public duty” means a duty in the discharge of which the State, the public or the community at large has an interest.”


The Hon’ble Supreme Court held that they were public servant as they were discharging public duty.


# 19. The petitioner was appointed as an interim resolution professional under Section 16 of the I & B Code, 2016 and later his appointment was confirmed by the committee of creditors under Section 22.


# 20. Under Section 16 (1) an interim resolution professional is appointed by the adjudicating authority on the insolvency commencement date. Under section 22 (3)(a), the committee of creditors after taking a decision to continue the interim resolution professional as the resolution professional, is required to communicate its decision to Adjudicating Authority and others. Even in cases where resolution professional appointed under section 22 is replaced by the committee of creditors under section 27, the name of the insolvency professional proposed to be appointed is to be forwarded to the Adjudicating Authority under Section 22(3), and thereafter the Adjudicating Authority is to forward the name of the proposed resolution professional to the Board for its confirmation in the same manner as laid down in Section 16. Against this scheme of the I&B Code the plea advanced on behalf of the petitioner that Adjudicating Authority had no role in the appointment of Resolution Professional is not sustainable.


# 21. Considering the fact that the appointment of Resolution Professional is made during the resolution process before the Company Law Tribunal with its approval, he will be a public servant under Section 2(c)(v) of the P.C. Act.


# 22. The next question for consideration is whether the functions of a Resolution Professional partake the character of a ‘public duty’?


# 23. Functions and obligations of Insolvency Professionals are as set out under Section 208 of I & B Code which are public in nature. These functions intimately relate to matters relating to loans extended by the Banks which is investments from public at large and therefore will come within the meaning of public duty as provided under Section 2-c(viii) of the P.C. Act.


# 24. It is true that Resolution Professional do not figure among the officers enumerated under Section 232 of I & B Code deemed to be a public servant within the meaning under section 21 of the IPC. Those who are deemed to be a public servant enjoy certain immunities from criminal prosecution for IPC offences under section 197 of Cr.P.C, as the cognizance cannot be taken without the previous sanction of the Central or State Government as the case may be. But this does not refer to, any immunity from criminal prosecution for offences committed under the PC Act.


# 25. Section 233 gives protection to a resolution professional from criminal prosecution for acts in good faith, and not where he has been apprehended red-handed with the bribe amount. Insolvency and bankruptcy code is self-contained code but only with respect to the matter provided therein. It does not cover the matters like the present, where a Resolution Professional takes bribes in order to favour a party for which P.C. Act is squarely applicable. Section 232 does not exclude operation of P.C. Act. Therefore, the plea the petitioner was not a public servant and was immune from criminal prosecution under PC Act is not tenable.


# 26. From the aforesaid discussion it is manifest that the appointment of resolution professional is made by the National Company Law Tribunal, which is the Adjudicating Authority for the insolvency resolution process of the companies under the I & B Code, 2016. Resolution Professional has a key role to play in the insolvency resolution process and to protect the assets of the corporate debtors. From his nature of assignment and duty to be performed his office entails performance of functions which are in the nature of public duty and therefore will come within the meaning of public servant both under sections 2 (c) (v) & (viii) of the PC Act. The plea that the Petitioner was not a Public Servant within the meaning of the PC Act is rejected. Criminal Miscellaneous Petition does not fulfill the parameters for

quashing and, accordingly, stands rejected.


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Hero Fincorp Limited Vs. The State (NCT of Delhi) & Anr - The complaint of the Petitioner discloses a cognizable offence i.e. criminal breach of trust in respect of the terms of contract that was agreed upon, which requires to be investigated by the police despite taking into account the fact that borrowed amounts stand repaid to the Petitioner.

  High Court Delhi (04.01.2022) in Hero Fincorp Limited Vs. The State (NCT of Delhi) & Anr.  [CRL.M.C. 736/2021] held that;

  • Undisputedly loans have been taken by the respondent No.2 for purchase of machineries. The machineries have not been purchased and the money, which had been taken for purchase of machinery, has been misappropriated for the use of respondent No.2. The facts on the face of it prima facie discloses a cognizable offence. 

  • The complaint of the Petitioner discloses a cognizable offence i.e. criminal breach of trust in respect of the terms of contract that was agreed upon, which requires to be investigated by the police despite taking into account the fact that borrowed amounts stand repaid to the Petitioner or the fact that proceedings before the arbitral tribunal are ongoing.

  • It is relevant to mention that Section 39 of the Code (Cr.P.C.) casts a statutory duty on every person to inform about commission of certain offences which includes offences covered by Sections 121 to 126, 302, 64-A, 382, 392, etc. of the Penal Code. 

  • It would be incongruous to suggest that though it is the duty of every citizen to inform about commission of an offence, but it is not obligatory on the officer in charge of a police station to register the report. 

  • The word “shall” occurring in Section 39 of the Code (Cr.P.C.) has to be given the same meaning as the word “shall” occurring in Section 154(1) of the Code.

 

Excerpts of the order;

# 1. The present petition is filed under Section 482 CrPC praying for setting aside the order dated 22.01.2021 passed by the Learned Principal District & Sessions Judge, Patiala House in Criminal Revision No. 369/2020 whereby, the Ld. PDJ dismissed the Revision and upheld order dated 10.11.2020 passed by the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate which had rejected the application for registration of an FIR under Section 156(3) CrPC.

 

# 2. The Petitioner herein is a Non-Banking Finance Company(NBFC), incorporated under the Companies Act,1956 and registered with the Reserve Bank of India as an institution providing financial assistance. The Respondent No. 2 is Sunil Sharma, Director of M/s Benlon India Ltd. The facts leading upto the present case are given as hereunder-

i. Mr. Balbir Sharma, Mrs. Sudesh Sharma and Mr. Balbir Sharma in their capacity as Directors of M/s Benlon India Ltd. approached the Petitioner in October 2014 for grant of a loan of Rs. 12.25 Crores stating that their company required to purchase 18 winding machines with standard accessories. Three agreements, namely the Master Facilities Agreement, Supplementary Agreement and Personal Guarantees were executed between both the parties. The loan was sanctioned by the Petitioner vide sanction letter reference No. HFCL/MTL/1007/2014 dated 24.10.2014.

ii. Mr. Balbir Sharma, Mrs. Sudesh Sharma and Mr. Sunil Sharma in their capacity as Directors of M/s Benlon India Ltd. again approached the Petitioner in December 2014 for the grant of a loan of Rs. 10 Crores stating that their company required to purchase 12 sets of Spinning (Winding)Machine, Model- TH-9C. Three agreements, namely the Master Facilities Agreement, Supplementary Agreement and Personal Guarantees were executed between both the parties. The loan was sanctioned by the Petitioner vide sanction letter reference No. HFCL/MME/01-07/20145 dated 06.02.2015.

iii. Mr. Balbir Sharma, Mrs. Sudesh Sharma and Mr. Sunil Sharma in their capacity as Directors of M/s Benlon India Ltd. again approached the Petitioner in October 2014 for the grant of a loan of Rs.15 Crores stating that their company required to purchase further equipment i.e. 6 Chennile Machines- PAFA SPIRAFIL 2FR (2) 1 PET FDY Production Spinning Line with JWA 15/1500.Three agreements, namely the Master Facilities Agreement, Supplementary Agreement and Personal Guarantees were executed between both the parties. The loan was sanctioned by the Petitioner vide sanction letter reference No. HFCL/MME/02-04/2016 dated 13.2.2016.

iv. The Respondent No. 2, Mr. Balbir Sharma and Mrs. Sudesh Sharma agreed to create a first pari passu charge on fixed assets in favour of the Petitioner on the land and building at Plot No. 122, 123, 124, 506, 508, 509, 510 HSIDC Industrial Area, Kundli, Sonipat, Haryana. Further, it was agreed that Mr. Balbir Sharma will create an equitable charge on a property situated at Punjabi Bagh in favour of the Petitioner and a Memorandum of Deposit of Title Deed dated 13.2.2016 was executed in the Petitioner’s favour.

v. The Respondents made payments of their loan instalments to the Petitioner until May 2018 when the Respondents started defaulting on their payments. It is indicated that the Respondents’ business/company suffered a huge financial loss in a fire at their official premises and they were not in a position to repay their debts/liabilities. The company was liquidated and proceedings were initiated before the NCLT and a liquidator was appointed. The Petitioner also filed their claim before the NCLT and the Committee of Creditors. The Petitioner took possession of the Flat at Punjabi Bagh that was mortgaged in their favour. The Petitioner further invoked the arbitration clause in the agreement against the Respondents on 11.1.2019. Respondent No. 2 filed a securitization application (No.4/2019) before the Debt Recovery Tribunal which is pending.

vi. The Petitioner on 13.12.2018 filed a complaint to Deputy Commissioner of Police, Economic Offences Wing stating that the Respondent No.2 hatched a criminal conspiracy whereby they defrauded the Petitioner by taking loans on the pretext of purchasing machines and equipment, and actually utilized the money for illegal purposes and caused a wrongful loss to the Petitioner of Rs.37.25 Crores. It is stated therein that before sanctioning of the loans the Respondent No.2 had agreed to a contract whereby he would utilize the loan amount only towards purchase of machines and would further timely send invoices to the Petitioner showing purchase of machinery. It was alleged by the Petitioner that the Respondents in order to keep availing of the loans fabricated and forged documents to substantiate their end of the agreement and gave incomplete documentation regarding the machinery.

vii. The Assistant Commissioner of Police, EOW sent a letter dated 08.07.2019 to the authorized representative of the Petitioner, Mr. Kisalay Kartikey which stated that the complaint of the petitioner could not be established and intimated that they were closing the complaint.

viii. The Petitioner addressed a complaint dated 11.7.2019 to the Commissioner of Police, EOW intimating in greater detail the allegations as were stated in the letter dated 11.7.2019 and annexed allegedly forged proforma invoices, showing the buying of machines, that were sent to the petitioner by Respondent No.2 as per their agreement.

 

# 3. The Petitioner filed an application under Section 156(3) Cr.P.C before the Magistrate calling upon her to direct the Police to register a FIR against the Respondent No.2 on the charges of cheating, forgery, criminal breach of trust and misappropriation for a sum of Rs. 7,35,22,719/- which Respondent No.2 and his parents Mr. Balbir Singh and Mrs. Sudesh Singh induced the Petitioner to grant them as a loan for buying machinery instrumental for their business. It was stated therein that the Respondent No.2 stopped paying the interest instalments and failed to adhere to the repayment schedule as per their agreement and when the Petitioner’s went to inspect the factory site of the Respondent No.2 they were not allowed to inspect the premises out of there. It is stated that the respondent No.2 and his parents in furtherance of the criminal conspiracy dishonestly misappropriated the loan amount for their own gains in complete contravention in specified terms of the loan agreement.

 

# 4. The learned CMM, Patiala House Court vide order 10.11.2020 dismissed the application under Section 156(3) Cr.P.C of the petitioner and held that the commission of a cognizable offence shall require the registration of an FIR, but every cognizable offence does not require investigation by the police.

 

# 5. Aggrieved by the above order, the petitioner filed a revision before the learned Principal District and Sessions Judge, Patiala House Courts, New Delhi challenging the order dated 10.11.2020, passed by the learned CMM, Patiala House Courts, New Delhi. The Revisionist Court by a detailed order dated 22.01.2021 analyzed the scope of Section 156(3) Cr.P.C and powers that are conferred on the Magistrate to take cognizance of a complaint under Section 190 Cr.P.C or direct the police to conduct an investigation of a cognizable offence, after due application of mind under Section 156(3) Cr.P.C. The learned Revisionist Court upheld the order the ld. CMM dismissing the prayer for the registration of an FIR and held that the said order did not suffer from any infirmity, impropriety or illegality.

 

# 6. Heard the parties and perused the material placed on record.

 

# 7. Mr. Sanjeev Singh, appeared for the petitioner. Ms. Meenakshi Chauhan, learned APP appeared for the State. Mr. Ashok Kumar Goyal appeared for Respondent No.2.

 

# 8. Mr. Sanjeev Singh, learned Counsel, submits that the orders passed by the revisionist court and the ld. CMM suffer from a non-application of judicial mind. He submitted that the respondent No.2 has usurped the loan amounts granted to him for his own purposes and has gone violated the loan agreements dated 25.10.2014, 11.02.2015 and 13.02.2016 under which bona fides large sum of monies were disbursed for the purposes of procuring machinery and appliances for the business of respondent No.2.

 

# 9. He submits that the respondent No.2 consciously deviated from the terms agreed upon in the master facility agreements and the supplementary agreements, and in furtherance of his motives to use the money for extra-legal purposes, to show a perfunctory compliance of the terms of the contract submitted concocted and fabricated purchase invoices to show that the loans were being utilized only towards purchase of machinery.

 

# 10. He submits that the Respondent no. 2 had since early 2016 willfully defaulted on the instalments on the payment of loan and violated the repayment schedule as agreed upon in the terms of the contract. He further contends that when the respondents started defaulting the officials of the Petitioner company visited the factory of the respondent no.2 for a surprise inspection and the said officials were not allowed to enter the premises and later found out that the machinery had been sold and a few of the machines had been moved to another location. He submits that the shifting of machinery had to be done with prior intimation to the financier a.k.a the Petitioner, and it was an express obligation under the contract.

 

# 11. He submitted that the Respondent No.2 have admitted to this fact that machines had not been purchased with the loans sanctioned before this Court in OMP(I) (COMM.) 423/2018 and this fact has been recorded in the Court order dated 19.12.2018. He contends that the orders passed by the Ld. Courts below neglected to take into account this categorical admission of non-purchase of machinery by Respondent No.2 before this Hon’ble Court.

 

# 12. Mr. Ashok Kumar Goyal, learned counsel for respondent No.2, submitted that the orders passed the ld. PDJ and the ld. Chief Metropolitan Magistrate were reasoned orders made with the application of judicial minds and taking into account relevant factors such as the various ongoing proceedings waiting adjudication. He submitted that there was no intention to cheat or deceive the petitioner’s company and loans were disbursed after a comprehensive verification by the petitioner and after furnishing of substantial personal guarantees by the respondent’s company. 

 

# 13. He vehemently argued that the loans were being timely repaid and the bills of machinery obtained were being submitted to the petitioner until May, 2018. He submitted that he suffered losses in his business due to a deteriorating business climate and demonetization which was aggravated by a fire that took place in his factory, destroying 180 Crore Rupees worth of machinery. He finally submitted that the total loan amount of 37.5 Crore Rupees stands fully repaid pursuant to the proceedings before the NCLT and, therefore, since the loan amount has been remitted, the contract binding the terms and conditions of the loan stands performed and no offence is made out.

 

# 14. The material on record discloses that the petitioner advanced three loans to the respondent for the sole purpose of procuring machinery and other accessories thereof and based on this understanding Loan agreements were entered into, and three loans of Rs.12.25 Crores, Rs.10 Crores and Rs.15 Crores were given by the petitioner. The relevant terms of the Supplementary Agreement have been reproduced below:-

  • “2. Facility Terms 

  • 2.1 Disbursement 

  • a. The nature of the Facility is "Machinery purchase funding". The Borrower desires to purchase certain Machineries (as specifically set forth in Schedule (I) in relation to the sanctioned Purpose and has approached HFCL vide the utilization Request to finance the Machinery); basis which HFCL has agreed to sanction the Facility, in respect thereof, pursuant to the Facilities Agreement. 

  • b. Pursuant to the above, HFCL will make payment under/disburse the Facility to the borrower and/or any third party, being the supplier of Machinery in the manner as set forth in Schedule I. That any disbursement of Facility to a third party, being the supplier of Machinery (who is entitled to receive money from Borrower basis the sanctioned Purpose) shall be against the account of the Borrower, under the Facilities Agreement and accordingly shall be deemed as Disbursement made to the Borrower under the Agreement"

 

# 15. The relevant portion of Section 405 and 406 IPC which defines criminal breach of trust and the punishment of criminal breach of trust are as under: 

  • "Criminal breach of trust.—Whoever, being in any manner entrusted with property, or with any dominion over property, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use that property, or dishonestly uses or disposes of that property in violation of any direction of law prescribing the mode in which such trust is to be discharged, or of any legal contract, express or implied, which he has made touching the discharge of such trust, or wilfully suffers any other person so to do, commits “criminal breach of trust” -

  • Illustration:

  • a) xxx

  • b) xxx

  • c) A, residing in Calcutta, is agent for Z, residing at Delhi. There is an express or implied contract between A and Z, that all sums remitted by Z to A shall be invested by A, according to Z’s direction. Z remits a lakh of rupees to A, with directions to A to invest the same in Company’s paper. A dishonestly disobeys the direction and employs the money in his own business. A has “committed criminal breach of trust."

  • 406. Punishment for criminal breach of trust.—Whoever commits criminal breach of trust shall be punished with imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, or with fine, or with both.

 

# 17. The ingredients of the offence of criminal breach of trust is that:

  • i) Entrustment of property.

  • ii) The use/discharge of such property being specified by express or implied contract.

  • iii) A dishonest misappropriation in using or disposing such property.

 

# 18. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Jaswant Rai Manilal Akhanay Vs. State of Bombay, AIR 1956 SC 575 has interpreted the provision of Section 405 IPC as follows:

  • “But when section 405 which defines "criminal breach of trust" speaks of a person being in any manner entrusted with property, it does not contemplate the creation of a trust- with all the technicalities of the law of trust. It contemplates the creation of a relationship whereby the owner of property makes it over to another person to be retained by him until a certain contingency arises or to be disposed of by him on the happening of a certain event. The person who transfers,, possession of the property to the second party still remains the legal owner of the property and the person in whose favour possession is so transferred has only the custody of the property to be kept or disposed of by him for the benefit of the other party, the person so put in possession only obtaining a special interest by way of a claim for money advanced or spent upon the safe keeping of the thing or such other incidental expenses as may have been incurred by him.

 

# 19. The Hon’ble Supreme Court in Sardar Singh vs. State of Haryana, (1977) 1 SCC 463 has expanded the facets of the criminal breach of trust as follows:

  • The offence of criminal breach is defined in Section 405 and an essential ingredient of this offence is that the accused being in any manner entrusted with property or with dominion over property, dishonestly misappropriates or converts to his own use that property or dishonestly uses or disposes of that property in violation of any direction of law prescribing the mode in which such trust is to be discharged or of any legal contract, express or implied, which he has made touching the discharge of such trust.”

 

# 20. The allegations made by the petitioner against respondent No.2’s company in its application under Section 156 (3) Cr.P.C reveals that the loans were given pursuant to a written contract and it appears prima facie that the respondent No.2 did not conform to all the terms and conditions that they agreed to at the time of seeking loan from the petitioner. It is correct that there are multiple proceedings that are presently being adjudicated before the sole arbitrator, liquidation proceedings before the NCLT and a claim that was decided by the Debt Recovery Tribunal. It is an admitted position, which has been verified by the State that the respondent No.2 incurred losses due to a fire that broke out at the factory of the petitioner causing him financial stress.

 

# 21. It has been held by the Supreme Court of India in Trisuns Chemical Industry V. Rajesh Agarwal (1999) 8 SCC 686 invoking an arbitration clause does not preclude filing of criminal proceedings and these two proceedings can be pursued parallely and independently, without affecting each other. In other words, there is no bar of pursuing criminal proceedings once arbitration has commenced.

 

# 22. Section 154 Cr.P.C provides for the registration of the First Information Report in respect of cognizable offences, which the police is mandated by law to register in writing and thereafter investigate into it. If the police refuses to file a First Information Report then a complaint can be filed with the Magistrate to direct the police to probe into the commission of a cognizable offence. The remedy under Section 156 (3) Cr.P.C can only be exercised to report the commission of a cognizable offence and not non-cognizable offences.

 

# 23. The Apex Court in Lalita Kumari vs. State of U.P., (2014) 2 SCC 1 has emphatically held that the police is duty bound to register an FIR on receiving information on the commission of a cognizable offence. The police has no other option but to register an FIR when such information pertaining to a cognizable offence and has to mandatorily investigate into the allegations of the FIR.

  • "49. Consequently, the condition that is sine qua non for recording an FIR under Section 154 of the Code is that there must be information and that information must disclose a cognizable offence. If any information disclosing a cognizable offence is led before an officer in charge of the police station satisfying the requirement of Section 154(1), the said police officer has no other option except to enter the substance thereof in the prescribed form, that is to say, to register a case on the basis of such information. The provision of Section 154 of the Code is mandatory and the officer concerned is duty-bound to register the case on the basis of information disclosing a cognizable offence. Thus, the plain words of Section 154(1) of the Code have to be given their literal meaning. 

  • Shall” 

  • 50. The use of the word “shall” in Section 154(1) of the Code clearly shows the legislative intent that it is mandatory to register an FIR if the information given to the police discloses the commission of a cognizable offence. 

  • 53. Investigation of offences and prosecution of offenders are the duties of the State. For “cognizable offences”, a duty has been cast upon the police to register FIR and to conduct investigation except as otherwise permitted specifically under Section 157 of the Code. If a discretion, option or latitude is allowed to the police in the matter of registration of FIRs, it can have serious consequences on the public order situation and can also adversely affect the rights of the victims including violating their fundamental right to equality. 

  • 54. Therefore, the context in which the word “shall” appears in Section 154(1) of the Code, the object for which it has been used and the consequences that will follow from the infringement of the direction to register FIRs, all these factors clearly show that the word “shall” used in Section 154(1) needs to be given its ordinary meaning of being of “mandatory” character. The provisions of Section 154(1) of the Code, read in the light of the statutory scheme, do not admit of conferring any discretion on the officer in charge of the police station for embarking upon a preliminary inquiry prior to the registration of an FIR. It is settled position of law that if the provision is unambiguous and the legislative intent is clear, the court need not call into it any other rules of construction.

  • 55. In view of the above, the use of the word “shall” coupled with the scheme of the Act lead to the conclusion that the legislators intended that if an information relating to commission of a cognizable offence is given, then it would mandatorily be registered by the officer in charge of the police station. Reading “shall” as “may”, as contended by some counsel, would be against the scheme of the Code. Section 154 of the Code should be strictly construed and the word “shall”should be given its natural meaning. The golden rule of interpretation can be given a go-by only in cases where the language of the section is ambiguous and/or leads to an absurdity. 

  • 56. In view of the above, we are satisfied that Section 154(1) of the Code does not have any ambiguity in this regard and is in clear terms. It is relevant to mention that Section 39 of the Code casts a statutory duty on every person to inform about commission of certain offences which includes offences covered by Sections 121 to 126, 302, 64-A, 382, 392, etc. of the Penal Code. It would be incongruous to suggest that though it is the duty of every citizen to inform about commission of an offence, but it is not obligatory on the officer in charge of a police station to register the report. The word “shall” occurring in Section 39 of the Code has to be given the same meaning as the word “shall” occurring in Section 154(1) of the Code."

 

# 24. Applying the law to the facts of this case, undisputedly loans have been taken by the respondent No.2 for purchase of machineries. The machineries have not been purchased and the money, which had been taken for purchase of machinery, has been misappropriated for the use of respondent No.2. The facts on the face of it prima facie discloses a cognizable offence. The learned CMM and the learned PDJ have erred in not directing the registration of the FIR as the offence alleged of directly comes within the four corners of the Constitution Bench Judgement of Lalita Kumari vs. State of U.P. (Supra). The complaint of the Petitioner discloses a cognizable offence i.e. criminal breach of trust in respect of the terms of contract that was agreed upon, which requires to be investigated by the police despite taking into account the fact that borrowed amounts stand repaid to the Petitioner or the fact that proceedings before the arbitral tribunal are ongoing. Therefore, this Court is of the opinion that a cognizable offence has been alleged against respondent No.2 and the same should be investigated after the registration of an FIR.

 

# 25. This Court directs the Economic Offences Wing to register an FIR against the respondent No.2 under the appropriate Sections.

 

# 26. This petition is accordingly disposed of along with the pending application(s), if any.

 

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Blogger’s comments; In the present case the financier has made payment direct to the supplier of the machineries. The financier has contended that the borrower has misappropriated the money without bringing out the supplier’s complicity in the transaction. When financier had made payments direct to the supplier, a duty is cast upon the financier to ensure supply of machinery to the borrower. How financer can wriggle out of this duty?

 

As far as immunity under section 32A of IBC, 2016, is concerned following observations of Hon’ble Supreme Court in Manish Kumar Vs. Union of India & Ors. [Writ Petition (C) No.26 of 2020] are quite significant;

 

# 258. It must be remembered that the immunity is premised on various conditions being fulfilled. There must be a resolution plan. It must be approved. There must be a change in the control of the corporate debtor. The new management cannot be the disguised avatar of the old management. It cannot even be the related party of the corporate debtor. The new management cannot be the subject matter of an investigation which has resulted in material showing abetment or conspiracy for the commission of the offence and the report or complaint filed thereto. These ingredients are also insisted upon for claiming exemption of the bar from actions against the property. Significantly every person who was associated with the corporate debtor in any manner and who was directly or indirectly involved in the commission of the offence in terms of the report submitted continues to be liable to be prosecuted and punished for the offence committed by the corporate debtor. The corporate debtor and its property in the context of the scheme of the code constitute a distinct subject matter justifying the special treatment accorded to them. Creation of a criminal offence as also abolishing criminal liability must ordinarily be left to the judgement of the legislature. Erecting a bar against action against the property of the corporate debtor when viewed in the larger context of the objectives sought to be achieved at the forefront of which is maximisation of the value of the assets which again is to be achieved at the earliest point of time cannot become the subject of judicial veto on the ground of violation of Article 14. We would be remiss if we did not remind ourselves that attaining public welfare very often needs delicate balancing of conflicting interests. As to what priority must be accorded to which interest must remain a legislative value judgement and if seemingly the legislature in its pursuit of the greater good appears to jettison the interests of some it cannot unless it strikingly ill squares with some constitutional mandate suffer invalidation. 

 

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